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orion DOES EPIPHANIUS KNOW WHAT PHARES MEANS?



From: George Brooks <george.x.brooks@juno.com>
To: orion@mscc.huji.ac.il
Subject: DOES EPIPHANIUS KNOW WHAT PHARES MEANS?


Okay, I'll bite.  Is Epiphanius "correct" when he says "PHARES" means
separation?
It doesn't sound like what OTHER posters have been saying.

What WOULD "phares" mean in Hebrew (or Aramaic)?

George Brooks
George.X.Brooks@JUNO.com


>
>On Wed, 27 Jan 1999 10:57:49 EST RGmyrken@aol.com writes:
>>    For what it's worth, I ran across the following passage at 
>>Epiphanius
>>16.1.7.
>>    "They were called Pharisees because they were separated from the 
others by the additional religious observances which they had taken on 
>>themselves.  For _Phares_ in Hebrew means 'separation'. "

>>    Russell Gmirkin
>>For private reply, e-mail to RGmyrken@aol.com

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