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RE: orion translation central?

At 03:44 PM 12/10/97 -0800, you wrote:
>Perhaps Professor West would be kind enough to answer the 
>following problem.
>Had the OT been composed in Greek at the time of the 
>Hasmoneans, would there not have been a greater knowledge 
>of the Persian period which has always caused the 
>Talmudists  great problems with their chronology. Because 
>they follow the OT  they lose about 165 years during the 
>Persian  era.

Any problem for the Talmud is no problem for me- for I simply know virtually
nothing of it.  It is an extremely late document(s) which has virtually
nothing to do with life in the hasmonean or herodian eras. It is a juristic
corpus and not very useful for historical reconstruction.

>It is interesting to note that if their chronology is used 
>(as seems likely) then the time period mentioned in the 
>Damascus  Document ( 390 + 20  after Nebuchadnezer ) would 
>suggest an Herodian rather than an Hasmonean era for its 

Its?  Do you mean the Hebrew Bible or the talmud?  If the Hebrew Bible,
perhaps.  I would have no quibble with this (though the biblical texts from
Qumran seem to me to stem from earlier than the herodian period).

At any rate we are moving a tad away from Orion and more towards Ioudaios.

>Mike_Sanders@photoad.com (private e-mail)



Jim West
Adjunct Professor of Bible
Quartz Hill School of Theology