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Re: orion Emmanuel
----------------------------Original message----------------------------
>"before he knows or chooses evil, he will choose the
good." The last two verbs are both infinitives in the MT. The first is =
an
infinitive in the LXX, but the second is future indicative. Neither Aqui=
la,
Symmachus, Theodotian, or Syriac follow the LXX in this translation. =20
> At the following verse (7.16), the LXX is even more creative: "bef=
ore
he knows either good or evil, he will refuse evil in order to choose good=
."
This involves the addition of "good or evil" as well as "in order to." <
Obviously, regardless of the LXX, one has to look first and foremost at the
Hebrew text (ignoring the possibility that the MT represents a Hebrew version
later than that from which the LXX was translated -- which we cannot know in
any particular instance unless we have proof thereof).
Therefore, what is the issue here? First, the Hebrew text is quite clear, and
when read in context (i.e., starting at the beginning of the chapter, and
taking account of all the grammar, definite article on 'almah, tenses of the
verbs, etc.) it obviously refers to an existing already pregnant female,
and any hidden message about future messiahs cannot be extracted without doing
some kind of midrash that is not supported by either text or context (see
verse 16 in particular, which refers back to Rezin and Pekah named in verse 1).
Secondly, where is the ambiguity in the reference to the ability to distinguish
good and evil and the moral capacity to reject the evil and choose the good?
So, please explain in more detail what precisely is the issue here?
"Puzzled in Providence"