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On Tue, 16 Jul 1996 14:55:22 +0300 (IDT), email@example.com writes:
>I don't want to stir up a hornets' nest and open a discussion of women's
>contribution to the composition of the Hebrew Bible. There are examples
>in the ANE of female scribes and authors- note Enheduanna daughter of
>Sargon of Akkade who composed some beautiful hymns, as well as Nissaba
>the goddess of the scribal art and also acredited with inspiring some
>literary comositions. Nonetheless, it must be proven and not only
>asserted that women played such roles in every society.
Good grief, Charlie Brown. King Tut's neice's made funerary offerings of
their writing cases, the examples buried with him showed signs of use. We
have the example, just for one, of a Chantress of Amen corresponding
through the good offices of the skipper of the boat belonging to Ra Meses,
the grandson of Ra Meses II and son of Kha Em Uset. The judgement in
Egyptology is that many people were literate. If Solomon married Bithiah,
Shishak's sister-in-law, and she came with Gezer as a dowry, she must have
not just been literate but would have arrived with scribes and a whole
collection of Egyptian literature such as wisdom literature which "Solomon"
so lavishly borrowed. This is not conjecture. The evidence lies in the
I disagree with David Rohl's thesis but he shows from the record just how
much Egyptian influence existed in "Solomon's" Jerusalem. I put Solomon in
quotes to point out that I know of no contemporary epigraphic record of
such a person as Solomon or Bithiah for that matter beyond what comes to us
from records nearly a millennium later. All of that reality is later
communication. Shishak is real. Hard data shows who he was. What hard
contemporary data shows that Solomon existed?
NOte that MIriam
>and Deborah both are said to have composed songs of victory, but, whether
>accurate or fictitious their compsitions seem to be orally composed.
>Also the prophetess Hulda, who is the final authority in determining how
>to react to the newly discovered book of the law is not said to have read
>it, and it is no less likely that the scribes who paid her a visit read
>it for her.
>There are women's names on seals. Does this constitute evidence of
>literacy or does it indicate just the opposite?
Apply the same standards as for Solomon or for David. There's one
putative mention of House of David only? BTW, it seems illogical that
someone not able to write would want a seal with writing on it. An
image would do as well. The owner would want to be able to identify
it. How would she otherwise unless there were an image she knew?