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>I am working on 4Q104 (PAM 41.299) (Ruth 1:1-10) and note that, so far as I
>can tell from the photo I have, that in line 2 "Moab" is somewhat unclear.
>In fact, all I can see is mem (something) aleph. In line 4 of the text Moab
>is fully written out. So far as I can see in line 2, there is no room for
>the final beth, and there is no inidication that it was ever there. So I am
>wondering if someone can help explain why Moab (if it is indeed Moab) is
>spelled without beth in line 2.
Right above the aleph you can see what could very well be a scribal
correction (an insertion of the missing beth).