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Re: crosspost from Ioudaios

Regarding the question of NT evidence of Aramaic: 

At 1 Cor 16:22, when signing off the letter with a curse and a blessing,
Paul includes the ritual expression:  _marana_tha_ ("Our Lord, come!") or,
less likely: _maran_atha_ ("Our Lord has come!).  Since no translation is
given, he evidently expected his readers to recognize and understand the
formula, which also occurs at _Didache_ 10:6 in connection with an early
form of "Lord's Supper" ritual. 

This seems to indicate that some (primarily?) Greek-speaking Christian
communities were using (some) Aramaic in their liturgies. 

C. R. A. Morray-Jones