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Re: crosspost from Ioudaios
Regarding the question of NT evidence of Aramaic:
At 1 Cor 16:22, when signing off the letter with a curse and a blessing,
Paul includes the ritual expression: _marana_tha_ ("Our Lord, come!") or,
less likely: _maran_atha_ ("Our Lord has come!). Since no translation is
given, he evidently expected his readers to recognize and understand the
formula, which also occurs at _Didache_ 10:6 in connection with an early
form of "Lord's Supper" ritual.
This seems to indicate that some (primarily?) Greek-speaking Christian
communities were using (some) Aramaic in their liturgies.
C. R. A. Morray-Jones